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ATPL理论考试-航线资料1294题 -7

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2021-02-08 13:07
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2021年2月8日发(作者:字幕翻译)






What phases is the Critical Flight Phases?



A



climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and


landing.


B



climb and descent when below 3,000 meters.



C



takeoff, and landing.




< p>
What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?



A



Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.



B



Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from


standard.


C



Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.







What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?



A



It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme


turbulence during the next 24 hours.



B



It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm


activity during the following 24 hours.



C



It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of


instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 mb).






What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices


generated by a large airplane that has


just taken off?


A



The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than


the downwind vortex


B



A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.



C



The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the


upwind vortex





During multi auto pilot approaches, bus isolation occurs at:



A



500 ft AGL



B



1000 ft AGL



C



1500 ft AGL






If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in


December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989,


the latter check is considered t


o have been taken in



A



November 1988.


B



December 1988.



C



January 1989. < /p>





What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical t


est for


the original issue of a Category II authorization?



A



Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the


Category I DH.



B



Within the previous 12 calendar


months, six ILS approaches flown by use


of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.




136



C



Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which


may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an app


roach coupler.






The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in


the status of airport facilities_______________



A



at their destinations


B



at their alternate aerodromes


C




A and B






(Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is



A



342o.


B



347o.



C



352o.




what is the propose of the term


clearance



A



when an IFR clearance is received by telephone the pilot will have time


to precpave for take off prior to being relea


se



B



a procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume weather or


need to issue further instructions



C



gate hold procedure are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of t


he


time the flight will be released






If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency,


who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport?



A



it is the pilot‘s responsibility for the operat


ing of the aircraft and


B



it is the pilot‘s responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it



C



no one have the responsibility during emergency situation.






(According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is



A



Rain and snow



B



Drizzle



C



Continuous snow






Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in re


sponse to ATCAS


advisory is expected to



A



Request ATC clearance for the deviation



B



Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable



C



Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation as ATC has


radar contact






What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?



A



Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green.



B



Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.




C



One light projector with two colors; red and white.




< br>:


isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of eq


ual pressure




136



A



At the surface



B



Reduced to sea level



C



At a given atmospheric pressure altitude






the effect of clearway on take off perform


ance is



A



Increases TODR



B



Increases TODA



C



Decreases ASDA






If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument


approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?



A



Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established


on the missed approach course.



B



Turn toward the landing runway maintainin


g MDA, and if visual reference


is not regained, perform missed approach.



C



Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further


instructions.



目< /p>



[Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance


under Operating Conditions S-1?



A



24 minutes, 118 NAM


B



26 minutes, 125 NAM


C



25 minutes, 118 NAM





What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or


surface-based temperature inversion?


A



The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air


over cold air.



B



Widespread sinking of air within a


thick layer aloft resulting in heating by


compression.



C



Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.






The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the


radar-controlled aircraft are?


A



to achieve the desired separation.


B



to maintain enough separation


C



both a and b





One purpose of high-lift devices is to



A




increase the load factor


B



delay stall.



C



increase airspeed





In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for


protracted fligh?




136



A



associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in


low-level stratus clouds.



B



associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce


continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus.



C



a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air.






5. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at


a daytime takeoff in runway 9?



A



1,000 feet


B



1,500 feet


C



2,000 feet





If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a


24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?


A



The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the


13 hours


B



The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121


limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours


C



The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at


or before the completion of 10 hours of duty






The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days


without any rest is


A



35 hours


B



32 hours



C



30 hours




< br>What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?



A



Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed.



B



Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed.



C



Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase


angle of attack





The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff


and stop the airplane within the accelerate


-stop distance is


A



V2


B



VEF


C



V1





[Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago


Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl


A



2 hours 12 minutes


B



2 hours 15 minutes


C



2 hours 18 minutes





Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM


most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines?




136



A



High RPM and low MAP.


B



Low RPM and high MAP.


C



High RPM and high MAP.





What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind


condition at different positions on the airport is report


ed?


A



Light and variable.



B



Wind shear.


C



Frontal passage.





An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar


year, for no more than


A



800hours


B



900 hours


C



1000hours






What action should the pilot take when


effect?



A



Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing.



B



Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearance.



C



Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request clearance prior to


leaving the parking area.






The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is



A



The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio



B



The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be


obtained


C



The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained







A temperature of 45o Cis C--K: C+273 C --F: C*1.8+32



A



57o F or 273o k



B



113o F or 273o K



C



113F or 318k






Which area or areas of the northen hemisphere experance a generally East


to West movement of weather system?



A



subtropical only;



B



Arctic only;



C



Arctic and subtropical;





the maximum range TAS for low altitude


OPS



A



The same to normal



B



Higher than to normal



C



Lower than to normal




136






When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot shoul


d fill the


FLIGHT RULES box with letter



A



Y


B



I.


C



Z.





Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder


in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines



A



May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30


minutes


B



May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the


last 30 minutes



C



May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft







For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with


letter


A



G


B



S


C



R





The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion,


and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are


the


A



pilot in command and chief pilot.


B



pilot in command and director of operations.



C



pilot in command and the flight follower.






What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be


from the departure airport for a two


-engine airplane?



A



2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.



B



1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine


inoperative.


C



1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.







The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be



listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are



A



those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time


the flight is expected to arrive.



B



those specified in the certificate holder's Operations


Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.



C



those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour


before or after the ETA for that flight.






The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000


feet and sitting quietly would be about



A



40 seconds


B



3 minutes




136



C



1 minute and 15 seconds





Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace?



A



FL 6,300m.


B



FL 6,000m.


C



FL 600m.






[Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing


distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000


pounds gross weight?


A



1,150 feet


B



500 feet


C



300 feet





Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment?



A



to check the performance of the aircraft;



B



because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety;



C



to achieve or maintain the desired separation.






weather feathure occurs art altitude leves near the tropopause can



A



abrupt temperature increase of the tropopause



B



thin layers of cirrus clouds at the tropopause level



C



maximum wind and narrow wind sheat zones






(Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what


is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007




A



FL118


B



FL128


C



FL138




What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed?


A



V2.


B



V1


.


C



VLOF.





A pilot should not fly with a common cold. What drug cause side effects


related to the common cold?



A




anti-histamines causing drowsiness



B




tranquilizers increase pilot fatigued



C




auribiotics causing diarrniea








What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be


certified during the original issuance of the authorization?



A



100 feet AGL


B



150 feet AGL



136



C



200 feet AG





avoidi ng smoking and alcohol and exercising regularly reduce the


likelihood of developing with disease?



A



Osteo-arthritis



B



Cardiac- vascular



C



Gout







At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a


jet airplane occur?


A



A speed less than that for L/DMAX.


B



A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.


C



A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.






The top of Class D airspace corresponds to


A



600m AGL.


B



Final approach fix


C



The first holding pattern level






(Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME


Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone


does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC?



A



372 feet.


B



470 feet.


C



525 feet





How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain


a record of the load manifest, airworthiness r


elease, pilot route certification,


flight release, and flight plan?


A



1 month.


B



3 months.


C



12 months.





what is a feature of a stationary fron


t?


A



surface winds tends to flow parallel to the zone



B



weather conditions ate a combination of strong wind front



C



the warm front surface moves


abort half the spead of the cold front






(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou


(ZGGG)



A



Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds



B



Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds



C



Bad visibility and strong wind






Which arctic flying hazard is caused when a cloud layer of uniform


thickness overlies a snow or ice covered surface




136



A



Whiteout



B



Blowing snow



C



Ice fog






Which take-off climb segment is limited to 5 minutes at MCT?



A



2nd



B



3rd



C



1st






Hyp oxia may be caused by



A



fly with a head cold


B



breathing too quickly and/or too deeply f


or the requirements of the body



C



flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too


low








Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch


release, weather reports must indicate t


hat weather conditions will be at or


above authorized minimums at that airport



A



during the entire flight.


B



for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.



C



when the flight arrives.





The part of the eye which bends in coming light the most is the



A



refractive disc



B



lens




C



cornea






What term describes are elongated areas of lows pressure?



A



hurricane or typhoon;



B



Ridge;




C



Trough






Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?



A



Elevator



B



Dorsal fin



C



Slats






If the authority gradient is too steep,



A



the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the


decision


B



The first officer respects the captain‘s command status but feels free to



C



the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision







What effect if any will landing at a higher


-than- recommended


touchdown speed have on hydroplaning




136

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