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全国2018年7月自考英语国家概况试题
课程代码:00522
请将答案填在答题纸相应的位置上。全部题目用英文作答
I.
Multiple Choice Questions. (50 points, 1 point for
each)
Directions: In this part of the test,
there are 50 unfinished statements or questions.
For each of the unfinished
statements or
questions, four suggested answers marked, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one that you
think
best completes the statement or answers the
question. Write the letter of the answer you have
chosen
in the corresponding space on your
Answer Sheet.
1. Which of the following
statements is NOT true about Britain?
A.
Great Britain and England are geographical names.
B. The official name of Britain is the United
Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.
C. Britain has four political divisions on
the island of Great Britain.
D. British
Empire was replaced by the British Commonwealth in
1931.
2. The successful Roman invasion took
place in ______, headed by ______.
A. 43 AD,
the Emperor Claudius
C. 55 BC, Julius Caesar
B. 43 AD, Julius Caesar
D. 55 BC, the
Emperor Claudius
3. During the fifth century
when the Roman Empire fell, the Germanic ______
invaded and conquered Britain.
A. Angles and
Celts
C. Angles and Britons
B. Angles
and Picts
D. Angles and Saxons
4. In the
year 597, England began to be Christianized. It
was mainly due to the work of ______.
A. St.
Augustine
C. Pope Gregory
B.
Constantine
D. Ethelbert, king of Kent
5.
______ is regarded by many Englishmen as the
foundation of English liberties.
A. The
beginning of British Parliament
B. The
People’s Charter
C. The Petition of Right
D. Magna Carta of 1215
6. ______ is known
as “the father of the British navy” as he founded
a strong fleet which first beat the Danes at
sea.
A. Ethelred
C. Alfred
B.
William
D. Edward
7. Which of the
following is NOT true about “Domesday Book”?
A. It was compiled to discover how much to be
called upon to pay by taxes.
B. It was so
called because it seemed to the English like the
Book of Doom used on Judgment Day.
C. It was
completed as the result of a general survey of
England.
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D. it is kept in
the public library in London.
8. The Lollards
were ______ who had played a very important role
in the Peasant Uprising of 1381.
A. poor
priests and itinerant preachers
C. merchants
B. poets and writers
D. craftsmen
9.
The word Renaissance is from ______, meaning
“rebirth”, and was first applied by the ______
historian Jakob
Burckhardt in 1860.
A.
English, Swiss
C. French, Swiss
B.
French, Italian
D. English, Italian
10.
The significance of the Wars of the Roses was all
the following EXCEPT that ______.
A.
feudalism received its death blow
B. the
great medieval nobility was much weakened
C.
the king’s power now became limited
D. no
less than 80 nobles of royal blood were killed in
the wars
11. The Religious Reformation in
England was led by King ______, and the direct
cause was his divorce case
with ______.
A. Henry VIII, Catherine of Aragon
C. Henry
II, Eleanor of Aquitaine
B. Henry Tudor,
Elizabeth of York
D. Henry I, Matilda
12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true
about Elizabeth I?
A. Elizabeth I broke
Mary’s ties with Rome.
B. Elizabeth I
restored her father’s independent Church of
England.
C. Elizabeth I’s religious reform
was a compromise of views.
D. Elizabeth I’s
religious settlement was acceptable to both
extreme Protestants and ardent Catholics.
13.
After the Restoration, British Parliament passed a
series of severe laws called ______ against the
Puritans,
now known as Nonconformists.
A.
the Act of Succession
C. the Clarendon Code
B. the Petition of Right
D. the Act of
Supremacy
14. The spark of the First World War
was struck at Sarajevo on June 28 ______, when the
______ Crown Prince
Franz Ferdinand was
assassinated by a Serbian nationalist.
A.
1913, German
C. 1913, Bulgarian
15. The
leader of the House of Lords is ______.
A.
the Archbishops of Canterbury
C. the Prime
Minister
B. the Monarch
D. the Lord
Chancellor
B. 1914,Austrian
D. 1914,
English
16. Which of the following is NOT
considered a characteristic of farming in England
in the late 18th and early
19th centuries?
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A. Use of artificial
fertilizer.
B. Introduction of new
agricultural machinery.
C. The “open-field”
system.
D. A system of crop rotation.
17.
In the United Kingdom, police officers are NOT
allowed to join ______ or to go on strike.
A.
a trade union
C. a club
B. a political
party
D. a society
18. The Church of
England is NOT free to change its form of worship,
as laid down in ______, without the
consent of
Parliament.
A. the Bill of Rights
C.
the Constitutions of Clarendon
B. the
Provisions of Oxford
D. the Book of Common
Prayer
19. The British universities are
governed by ______ or by ______ and enjoy academic
freedom.
A. royal charters, Act of Parliament
B. the People’s Charter, the Reform Act of
1832
C. the Great Charter, the Bill of Rights
D. the Petition of Right, the Test Act
20. Rupert Murdoch’s News International, one
of the largest publishing corporations, owns the
following national
papers EXCEPT ______.
A. the Times
C. News of the World
B. the
Sun
D. the Daily Telegraph
21. Now about
80% to 90% of immigration to the United States is
from ______.
A. Asian and Hispanic countries
B. African countries
C. European
countries
D. Central and South American
countries
22. The Declaration of Independence
clearly explained the political theory behind the
American Revolution which
came from ______.
A. the British philosopher John Locke
B.
the Italian philosopher John Locke
C. the
American president George Washington
D. the
American statesman Thomas Jefferson
23. In
1787, all of the states except Rhode Island were
represented to revise the Articles of
Confederation at
______.
A. the First
Continental Congress
C. the Constitutional
Convention
B. the Second Continental
Congress
D. the First US Congress
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24. In 1865, ______, which banned
slavery, was added to the American Constitution.
A. the Tenth Amendment
C. the
Declaration of Independence
B. the Thirteenth
Amendment
D. the Bill of Rights
25. Which
of the following is NOT true about the Bill of
Rights?
A. It was meant to protect the blacks
for the right to vote, to use the public
facilities and to enjoy the same
education as
white people.
B. It was the first ten
amendments to the American Constitution.
C.
It was not until the federalists agree to the Bill
of Rights Amendments that ratification of the
Constitution was
assured.
D. It
guarantees the basic rights for the individual
such as the freedom of religion, freedom of
speech, freedom of
the press, and so on.
26. As a result of ______, the territory owned
by the United States almost doubled.
A. the
Louisiana Purchase
B. the peace treaty with
Mexico
C. the Gadsden Purchase
D. the
armed uprising of the Americans in Texas
27.
After the World War I, the result of the ______
was the emergence of the ______.
A. Peace
Conference, Treaty of Paris
B. Paris
Conference, Versailles Treaty System
C.
Teheran Conference, Versailles Treaty System
D. Paris Conference, Munich Agreement
28.
______ was not an idealist, not a dreamer, so he
presented to Congress his program known as ______.
A. John F. Kennedy, the New Frontier
B.
Theodore Roosevelt, the New Deal
C. Woodrow
Wilson, the program of New Freedom
D.
Franklin D. Roosevelt, the New Deal
29. The
decision of the setting-up of a world
organization—the United Nations was made at the
______.
A. Yalta Conference
C. Teheran
Conference
B. Geneva Conference
D. Paris
Conference
30. The Cold War between the United
States and the Soviet Union basically originated
from ______.
A. their different goals during
the Second World War
B. their different
attitudes toward Germany
C. their different
attitudes toward Eastern Europe
D. their
separate concepts of postwar world order
31.
The real purpose of the Marshal Plan is to ______.
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A. prevent Greece and
Turkey from falling into the hands of the Soviet
Union
B. support any country which said it
was fighting against Communism
C. help
Western Europe recover from the disrupted
industrial production
D. prevent Western
Europe from possible Soviet expansion
32.
Which of the following is NOT true about
McCarthyism?
A. It was the reflection of
anti-Communism on the American society.
B. It
refers to the anti-Communist hysteria in the
United States.
C. The court played a role in
approving the lawfulness of anti-Communist
activities.
D. It frightened a large number
of Americans who felt it would be more dangerous
to conform than to disagree
with the majority.
33. During the Cuban Missile Crisis, President
______ decided to use the naval force to prevent
military material
and arms from getting into
Cuba.
A. Franklin D. Roosevelt
C. John
F. Kennedy
B. Harry Truman
D. Ronald
Reagan
34. After the Geneva Conference, the
United States replaced ______ and became the main
force in providing aid
for ______.
A.
France, the North Vietnam government
B.
France, the South Vietnam government
C.
Britain, the North Vietnam government
D.
Britain, the South Vietnam government
35.
After the Watergate scandal happened in 1972, the
President ______ had to resign. He is the first
president to
do so in the U.S. history.
A. Ronald Reagan
C. John F. Kennedy
B.
Harry Truman
D. Richard Nixon
36. ______
was elected president because in the late 1970s,
the American society turned conservative.
A.
Ronald Reagan
C. Richard M. Nixon
B.
Jimmy Carter
D. George Bush
37. In
America, the two major parties are really not very
different today. But on economic issues, the
______
traditionally favors government
intervention while the ______ stresses the role of
the market more.
A. Democratic Party,
Republican Party
B. Republican Party,
Democratic Party
C. Whig Party, Democratic
Party
D. Whig Party, Republican Party
38.
According to the Constitution, the American
President must take care that all laws be
faithfully executed. To
carry out this
responsibility, he presides over ______ of the
federal government.
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A. the
legislative branch
C. the judicial branch
B. the executive branch
D. the American
Congress
39. According to the American
Constitution, the Vice President shall be
President of ______.
A. the Senate
C.
the House of Representatives
B. the Congress
D. the Cabinet
40. The six goals set by
President Bush in his
A. eliminating drugs
and violence from the school
B. improving the
nation’s high-school graduation rate to at least
80%
C. requiring students to demonstrate
competency in English, mathematics, science,
history and geography
D. ensuring that all
adult Americans were literate
41. Although
relatively small in area, Ireland is large enough
to show distinct regional variations in ______.
A. climate
C. religion
B. ethnic
minorities
D. language
42. Ireland’s
population has been ______ during the past 100
years.
A. stable
C. on decline
B.
increasing
D. doubled
43. New Zealand is
about 1,500 km to the ______.
A. northeast of
Australia
C. northwest of Australia
B.
southeast of Australia
D. southwest of
Australia
44. The first British settlers came
to New Zealand in 1840 through ______, and they
hoped to start model colonies
by planned
migration.
A. the New Zealand Company
C. a private immigration agency
B. the
British East India Company
D. the Dutch East
India Company
45. Canada is bounded on the
north by ______, on the west by ______, and on the
east by ______.
A. the Arctic Ocean, the
Pacific Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean
B.
Antarctica, the Pacific Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean
C. the Arctic Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean, the
Pacific Ocean
D. Antarctica, the Atlantic
Ocean, the Pacific Ocean
46. In 1971, the
Canadian Government adopted a policy of ______,
recognizing that cultural pluralism within a
bilingual framework was the essence of the
Canadian identity.
A. unilingualism
C.
biculturalism
B. multilingualism
D.
multiculturalism
47. According to the new
federal Immigration Act (1978), the following are
the fundamental objectives of
Canadian
immigration law EXCEPT ______.
A. family
reunion
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B. concern for
refugees
C. promotion of the economic
development of the country
D. preservation of
British culture
48. Which of the following is
the longest river in Australia?
A. The
Murray.
C. The Swan River.
B. The
Clutha.
D. The Shannon River.
49. The
following animals are unique to Australia EXCEPT
______.
A. kangaroos
C. budgerigars
B. emus
D. koalas
50. The dominant
aspect of Aboriginal culture was ______.
A.
rock paintings and story-telling
B. religious
ceremonies
C. the Dreamtime
D. the
balance between the people and their environment
II. Answer the Questions. (30 points, 3 points
for each)
Directions: Give a one-sentence
answer to each of the following questions. Write
your answers in the
corresponding space on the
Answer Sheet.
51. What is the cause of the
decline of the British Empire?
52. Why is the
English Civil War also called the Puritan
Revolution?
53. What dose the British
Parliament consist of?
54. Why did the
American Civil War break out?
55. What are the
two special powers of the Senate in America?
56. Why is the board of trustees which governs
American colleges and universities composed
primarily of
laymen?
57. Under what treaty
was modern New Zealand founded?
58. What
happened to the French colony after the Seven
Years’ War between Britain and France?
59.
What happened after the English king was declared
the head of the Church of Ireland, replacing the
Pope?
60. How many political divisions are
there in Australia? What are they?
III. Term
Explanation. (20 points, 5 points for each)
Directions: Explain each of the following
terms in English. Write your answers in the
corresponding space on
the Answer Sheet in
around 40 words.
61. NHS
62. Whigs and
Tories
63. Electoral College
64.
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